Showing posts with label linguistic. Show all posts
Showing posts with label linguistic. Show all posts

Wednesday, January 9, 2013

"Secular" and "religious" are not antonymous

Over at Metabelief, Josiah is test-driving a bit of argumentative flair:
There is something that most atheist critiques of religion have failed to internalize. If there is no god, and there never has been, then religious practice is also a secular practice.
In the post comments and at Facebook, he's taking some flak for this bit of rhetoric; "You can't just redefine words to suit your activist aims", the criticism goes. Well, I'd like to don a philological hat here for a moment and point out that the semantic domains of "secular" and "religious." are not mutually exclusive. (As against a pair of words which do exclude one another, e.g. "faith" & "atheism".)

The first definition listed in the OED for "secular" indicates that the meaning of "secular" as "of the world" was used to differentiate monastics who lived "in the world" rather than in seclusion. And the first definition for "religion" gives its meaning as "a state of life bound by religious vows".... it is not until the third definition that any mention of supernaturalism or faith comes appears. (Keeping in mind here that the first definition is not necessarily the primary definition.)

The use of the terms "secular" and "religious" in the ways I describe above is not at all rare in historical sources (You can confirm this for yourself by a quick browse through Google Books). That we tend to use them as opposing terms at the present time, is a contingent happenstance of semantic drift or narrowing.

One textbook case of semantic change via pejoration ("the process by which the meaning of a word becomes negative or less elevated over a period of time") is the drift in meaning of the word "silly" (from Old English sēlig). "Silly" originally meant "holy" or "blessed." What kinds of things are holy or blessed? Innocent things. What does innocence usually indicate? That a thing is deserving of sympathy, helpless, or simple. If a thing is simple or helpless, what does this show? That the thing shows a lack of good sense. Linguists who have studied historical texts can find attestations forming a smooth, continuous shift in the meaning of the word "silly", from "holy" through all these variations in meaning, down to the present sense of "showing a lack of good sense, frivolous." Now when you go around declaring theistic churches, clergy, and creeds to be "utterly silly", you can do so with a straight face and the best of intentions.

I don't know if it's been done, but I suspect that a historical study of the words "religious" and "secular" would show a similarly smooth shift in their meaning from broad to more narrow usage. Well, there's no ethical or logical reason we language-users would be barred from pushing things in the other direction. Semantic narrowing can be reversed through semantic broadening. That's not semantic violence, or a reckless disregard for the dictionary -- it's just the way language works. Some of the factors that influence linguistic change are deliberate, and some are unplanned.

Short put: there is no contradiction in saying that "(some) religions are secular" or "(some forms of secularism) are religious." These statements are unconventional, not oxymoronic. Whether such statements or ideas are rhetorically useful, is a separate question. I for one would like to see what Josiah works out.

Sunday, September 20, 2009

Rebutting the idea that God created logic

In "Atheism: An Irrational Worldview", Jason Lisle asserts that atheists -- by employing logic in their arguments regarding the purported existence of God -- actually presuppose that God exists since, he implies, the existence of logic depends upon the existence of God. Alternative formulations of this argument are "God created logic" or "the existence of God proves that God exists." This argument can be rebutted even without full consideration, by observing that the proposition that logic "exists" is deeply problematic.

The term logic is formed elliptically from the Latin phrase ars logica, that is, "the logical arts" or "the arts pertaining to logos" -- in a word, "reason." Given this etymology, it is plain that "logic" is not an entity but rather something abstract, a set of the "arts" or methods of establishing the truth of inferences. Sets, being abstract, do not have tangible existence. Concepts exist only insofar as the systems in which they are represented exist. Therefore, the necessary prior existence of "logic" supposed by the theist is meaningless, since logic cannot be properly said to exist at all.

Another way of stating this is that logic is not an entity with the property of existence. This error is identical to Whitehead's fallacy of misplaced concreteness. What would the ontological status of an logic be? It is certainly not an object, with duration and time and extent in space. As a system of propositional conventions -- like language or algebra -- it could only be said to possess the existential quality if it was instantiated in some material substrate, as language is among the minds and artifacts of human beings.

A hat tip to Alex Vera and Nora Delaney; the above objection is based observations we made together in conversation.